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1. Which statement is true about full-duplex Ethernet in comparison to half-duplex Ethernet?

A: Full-duplex Ethernet consists of a shared cable segment. Half-duplex Ethernet provides a point-to-point link.
B: Full-duplex Ethernet uses a loopback circuit to detect collisions. Half-duplex Ethernet uses a jam signal.
C: Full-duplex Ethernet can provide higher throughput than can half-duplex Ethernet of the same bandwidth.
D: Full-duplex Ethernet uses two wires to send and receive. Half-duplex Ethernet uses one wire to send and receive.

Correct Answers:  C

2. Which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)

A: transparent
B: auto
C: on
D: desirable
E: blocking
F: forwarding

Correct Answers:  B, C, D

3. You and a co-worker have established wireless communication directly between your wireless laptops. What type of wireless topology has been created?

A: BSS
B: ESS
C: IBSS
D: SSID

Correct Answers:  C

4. What is the maximum data rate specified for IEEE 802.11b WLANs?

A: 10 Mbps
B: 11 Mbps
C: 54 Mbps
D: 100 Mbps

Correct Answers:  B

5. A routing protocol is required that supports:

1) routing update authentication
2) an addressing scheme that conserves IP addresses
3) multiple vendors
4) a network with over 50 routers

Which routing protocol fulfills these requirements?

A: RIPv1
B: RIPv2
C: EIGRP
D: OSPF

Correct Answers:  D

The Five FAQs are part of CCNA exam Q&A from www.certay.com. You can go to certay and consult live-support for more information if you are interested in its products. Now let’s look at the following study-guides offered by certay. 

Robin Lee :: Sep.07.2008 :: CCNA Exam Braindumps :: No Comments »

The following are part of CCNA exam Q&A from www.certay.com. You can go to certay and consult live-support for more information if you are interested in its products. Now let’s look at the following study-guides offered by certay. 

1. When a router is connected to a Frame Relay WAN link using a serial DTE interface, how is the interface clock rate determined?

A: It is supplied by the CSU/DSU.
B: It is supplied by the far end router.
C: It is determined by the clock rate command.
D: It is supplied by the Layer 1 bit stream timing.

Correct Answers:  A

2. Acknowledgements, sequencing, and flow control are characteristics of which OSI layer?

A: Layer 2
B: Layer 3
C: Layer 4
D: Layer 5
E: Layer 6
F: Layer 7

Correct Answers:  C

3. Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three.)

A: buffering
B: cut-through
C: windowing
D: congestion avoidance
E: load balancing

Correct Answers:  A, C, D

4. Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between switches?

A: VTP
B: STP
C: ISL
D: 802.1Q
E: VLSM

Correct Answers:  A

5. Which two devices can interfere with the operation of a wireless network because they operate on similar frequencies? (Choose two.)

A: copier
B: microwave oven
C: toaster
D: cordless phone
E: IP phone
F: AM radio

Correct Answers:  B, D

Robin Lee :: Aug.24.2008 :: CCNA Exam Braindumps :: No Comments »

The following are part of CCNA exam Q&A from www.certay.com. You can go to certay and consult live-support for more information if you are interested in its products. Now let’s look at the following study-guides offered by certay.  

1. Why has the network shown in the exhibit failed to converge?

A: The no auto-summary command needs to be applied to the routers.
B: The network numbers have not been properly configured on the routers.
C: The subnet masks for the network numbers have not been properly configured.
D: The autonomous system number has not been properly configured.
E: The bandwidth values have not been properly configured on the serial interfaces.

Correct Answers:  A

2. Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the exhibit is running the RIPv2 routing protocol. The network has converged, and the routers in this network are functioning properly. The FastEthernet0/0 interface on R1 goes down. In which two ways will the routers in this network respond to this change? (Choose two.)

A: All routers will reference their topology database to determine if any backup routes to the 192.168.1.0 network are known.
B: Routers R2 and R3 mark the route as inaccessible and will not accept any further routing updates from R1 until their hold-down timers expire.
C: Because of the split-horizon rule, router R2 will be prevented from sending erroneous information to R1 about connectivity to the 192.168.1.0 network.
D: When router R2 learns from R1 that the link to the 192.168.1.0 network has been lost, R2 will respond by sending a route back to R1 with an infinite metric to the 192.168.1.0 network.
E: R1 will send LSAs to R2 and R3 informing them of this change, and then all routers will send periodic updates at an increased rate until the network again converges.

Correct Answers:  C, D

3. The network administrator of the Oregon router adds the following command to the router configuration: ip route 192.168.12.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.12.1. What are the results of adding this command? (Choose two.)

A: The command establishes a static route.
B: The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.12.0.
C: Traffic for network 192.168.12.0 is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
D: Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
E: This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network.
F:Traffic for network 172.16.12.0 is forwarded to the 192.168.12.0 network.

Correct Answers:  A, C

Robin Lee :: Aug.12.2008 :: CCNA Exam Braindumps :: No Comments »

The following are part of 640-553 Q&A from www.certay.com. You can go to certay and consult live-support for more information if you are interested in its products. Now let’s look at the following study-guides offered by certay.

1. Which consideration is important when implementing Syslogging in your network?

A. Use SSH to access your Syslog information.
B. Enable the highest level of Syslogging available to ensure you log all possible event messages.
C. Log all messages to the system buffer so that they can be displayed when accessing the router.
D. Syncronize clocks on the network with a protocol such as Network Time Protocol.

Answer: D

2. Which statement is true when you have generated RSA keys on your Cisco router to prepare for secure device management?

A. You must then zeroize the keys to reset secure shell before configuring other parameters.
B. The SSH protocol is automatically enabled.
C. You must then specify the general-purpose key size used for authentication with the crypto key generate rsa general-keys modulus command.
D. All vty ports are automatically enabled for SSH to provide secure management.

Answer: B

3. What does level 5 in the following enable secret global configuration mode command indicate? router#enable secret level 5 password

A. The enable secret password is hashed using MD5.
B. The enable secret password is hashed using SHA.
C. The enable secret password is encrypted using Cisco proprietary level 5 encryption.
D. Set the enable secret command to privilege level 5.
E. The enable secret password is for accessing exec privilege level 5.

Answer: E

4. Which of these correctly matches the CLI command(s) to the equivalent SDM wizard that performs similar configuration functions?

A. Cisco Common Classification Policy Language configuration commands and the SDM Site-to-Site VPN wizard
B. auto secure exec command and the SDM One-Step Lockdown wizard
C. setup exec command and the SDM Security Audit wizard
D. class-maps, policy-maps, and service-policy configuration commands and the SDM IPS wizard
E. aaa configuration commands and the SDM Basic Firewall wizard

Answer: B

5. What is the key difference between host-based and network-based intrusion prevention?

A. Network-based IPS is better suited for inspection of SSL and TLS encrypted data flows.
B. Network-based IPS provides better protection against OS kernel-level attacks against hosts and servers.
C. Network-based IPS can provide protection to desktops and servers without the need of installing specialized software on the end hosts and servers.
D. Host-based IPS can work in promiscuous mode or inline mode.
E. Host-based IPS is more scalable then network-based IPS.
F. Host-based IPS deployment requires less planning than network-based IPS.

Answer: C

Robin Lee :: Aug.04.2008 :: CCNA Exam Braindumps :: No Comments »

The following are part of 640-460 Q&A from www.certay.com. You can go to www.certay.com and consult live-support for more information if you are interested in its products. Now let’s look at the following study-guides offered by Certay.

1. Refer to the exhibit. After deploying a UC500 system, you receive a support call from a user reporting that callers are going straight to the operator instead of going to members of the hunt group. Which two tabs have configuration parameters that are most likely going to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Device
B. System
C. Network
D. SIP Trunk
E. Voice Features
F. Dial Plan

Answer: EF

2. What is the difference between voice VLAN and native VLAN?

A. Voice VLAN uses tagged 802.1Q frames whereas native VLAN uses 802.1P frames.
B. Voice VLAN uses untagged frames whereas native VLAN uses 802.1Q frames.
C. Voice VLAN uses tagged 802.1Q frames whereas native VLAN uses untagged frames.
D. Voice VLAN uses untagged frames only when no PCs are connected behind the phones whereas native VLAN always uses untagged frames.

Answer: C

3. Which protocol is used to inform the IP phone of its voice VLAN ID? 

A. Cisco keepalives
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol
C. Cisco Spanning Tree Protocol
D. Cisco VLAN Discovery Protocol

Answer: B

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which identifies the amplitude of an analog signal stream?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. A x C
E. Voltage/Time
F. Voltage/Time x B/C

Answer: C

5. Which value does an administrator assign to option 150 for DHCP to operate correctly in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express environment?

A. IP address of the DNS server
B. IP address of the TFTP server
C. MAC address of the TFTP server
D. MAC address of the DHCP server
E. MAC address of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router
F. IP address of the PC on which the Cisco Unity Express module is installed

Answer: B

Robin Lee :: Jul.24.2008 :: CCNA Exam Braindumps :: No Comments »

The following are part of CCNA exam Q&A from www.certay.com. You can go to certay and consult live-support for more information if you are interested in its products. Now let’s look at the following study-guides offered by certay.  

1. Which tables of EIGRP route information are held in RAM and maintained through the use of hello and update packets? (Choose two.)

A: neighbor table
B: SPF table
C: RTP table
D: topology table
E: query table
F: DUAL table

Correct Answers: A, D

2. A router learns about a remote network from EIGRP, OSPF, and a static route. Assuming all routing protocols are using their default administrative distance, which route will the router use to forward data to the remote network?

A: The router will use the static route.
B: The router will use the OSPF route.
C: The router will use the EIGRP route.
D: The router will load balance and use all three routes.

Correct Answers: A

3. What is one reason that WPA encryption is preferred over WEP?

A: A WPA key is longer and requires more special characters than the WEP key.
B: The access point and the client are manually configured with different WPA key values.
C: WPA key values remain the same until the client configuration is changed.
D: The values of WPA keys can change dynamically while the system is used.

Correct Answers: D

4. When a new trunk link is configured on an IOS based switch, which VLANs are allowed over the link?

A: By default, all defined VLANs are allowed on the trunk.
B: Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the switchport mode command.
C: Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the vtp domain command.
D: Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the vlan database command.

Correct Answers: A

Robin Lee :: Jul.18.2008 :: CCNA Exam Braindumps :: No Comments »

The following are part of CCNA exam Q&A from www.certay.com. You can go to certay and consult live-support for more information if you are interested in its products. Now let’s look at the following study-guides offered by certay.  

1. What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)

A: Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B: Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C: Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D: Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E: Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.

Correct Answers:  B, D

2. What are two characteristics of Telnet? (Choose two.)

A: It sends data in clear text format.
B: It is no longer supported on Cisco network devices.
C: It is more secure than SSH.
D: It requires an enterprise license in order to be implemented.
E: It requires that the destination device be configured to support Telnet connections.

Correct Answers:  A, E

3. Which of the following are key characteristics of PPP? (Choose three.)

A: can be used over analog circuits
B: maps Layer 2 to Layer 3 address
C: encapsulates several routed protocols
D: supports IP only
E: provides error correction

Correct Answers:  A, C, E

4. What will an Ethernet switch do if it receives a unicast frame with a destination MAC that is listed in the switch table?

A: The switch will not forward unicast frames.
B: The switch will forward the frame to a specific port.
C: The switch will return a copy of the frame out the source port.
D: The switch will remove the destination MAC from the switch table.
E: The switch will forward the frame to all ports except the port on which it was received.

Correct Answers:  B

5. A Cisco router that was providing Frame Relay connectivity at a remote site was replaced with a different vendor’s frame relay router. Connectivity is now down between the central and remote site. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A: mismatched LMI types
B: incorrect DLCI
C: mismatched encapsulation types
D: incorrect IP address mapping

Correct Answers:  C

Robin Lee :: Jul.10.2008 :: CCNA Exam Braindumps :: No Comments »

The following are part of CCNA exam Q&A from www.certay.com. You can go to certay and consult live-support for more information if you are interested in its products. Now let’s look at the following study-guides offered by certay.  

1. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains exist in the exhibited topology?

A: one
B: two
C: three
D: four
E: five
F: six

Correct Answers:  C

2. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram? (Choose two.)

A:The area of overlap of the two cells represents a basic service set (BSS).
B:The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS).
C:Access points in each cell must be configured to use channel 1.
D:The area of overlap must be less than 10% of the area to ensure connectivity.
E:The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels.

Correct Answers:  B, E

3. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has created a new VLAN on Switch1 and added host C and host D. The administrator has properly configured switch interfaces FastEthernet0/13 through FastEthernet0/24 to be members of the new VLAN. However, after the network administrator completed the configuration, host A could communicate with host B, but host A could not communicate with host C or host D. Which commands are required to resolve this problem?

A: Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1.3
Router(config-if)# encapsulation dot1q 3
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
B: Router(config)# router rip
Router(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0
Router(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0
Router(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
C: Switch1# vlan database
Switch1(vlan)# vtp v2-mode
Switch1(vlan)# vtp domain cisco
Switch1(vlan)# vtp server
D: Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Switch1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl

Correct Answers:  A

4. Refer to the exhibit. The access list has been configured on the S0/0 interface of router RTB in the outbound direction. Which two packets, if routed to the interface, will be denied? (Choose two.)

access-list 101 deny tcp 192.168.15.32 0.0.0.15 any eq telnet
access-list 101 permit ip any any

A: source ip address: 192.168.15.5; destination port: 21
B: source ip address:, 192.168.15.37 destination port: 21
C: source ip address:, 192.168.15.41 destination port: 21
D: source ip address:, 192.168.15.36 destination port: 23
E: source ip address: 192.168.15.46; destination port: 23
F: source ip address:, 192.168.15.49 destination port: 23

Correct Answers:  D, E

5. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 has just been restarted and has passed the POST routine. Host A sends its initial frame to Host C. What is the first thing the switch will do as regards populating the switching table?

A: Switch1 will add 192.168.23.4 to the switching table.
B: Switch1 will add 192.168.23.12 to the switching table.
C: Switch1 will add 000A.8A47.E612 to the switching table.
D: Switch1 will add 000B.DB95.2EE9 to the switching table.

Correct Answers:  C

Robin Lee :: Jul.02.2008 :: CCNA Exam Braindumps :: No Comments »

The following are part of CCNA exam Q&A from www.certay.com. You can go to certay and consult live-support for more information if you are interested in its products. Now let’s look at the following study-guides offered by certay.  

1. What are two reasons that a network administrator would use access lists? (Choose two.)

A: to control vty access into a router
B: to control broadcast traffic through a router
C: to filter traffic as it passes through a router
D: to filter traffic that originates from the router
E: to replace passwords as a line of defense against security incursions

Correct Answers:  A, C

2. A default Frame Relay WAN is classified as what type of physical network?

A: point-to-point
B: broadcast multi-access
C: nonbroadcast multi-access
D: nonbroadcast multipoint
E: broadcast point-to-multipoint
Correct Answers:  C

3. A single 802.11g access point has been configured and installed in the center of a square office. A few wireless users are experiencing slow performance and drops while most users are operating at peak efficiency. What are three likely causes of this problem? (Choose three.)

A: mismatched TKIP encryption
B: null SSID
C: cordless phones
D: mismatched SSID
E: metal file cabinets
F: antenna type or direction
Correct Answers:  C, E, F

4. The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command?

A: This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B: The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
C: 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D: This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
E: The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.

Correct Answers:  E

5. Which type of attack is characterized by a flood of packets that are requesting a TCP connection to a server?

A: denial of service
B: brute force
C: reconnaissance
D: Trojan horse

Correct Answers:  A

6. Which of the following are associated with the application layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

A: ping
B: Telnet
C: FTP
D: TCP
E: IP

Correct Answers:  B, C

7. For security reasons, the network administrator needs to prevent pings into the corporate networks from hosts outside the internetwork. Which protocol should be blocked with access control lists?

A: IP
B: ICMP
C: TCP
D: UDP

Correct Answers:  B

8. What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)

A: Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B: Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C: Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D: Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E: Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.

Correct Answers:  B, D

9. Which spread spectrum technology does the 802.11b standard define for operation?

A: IR
B: DSSS
C: FHSS
D: DSSS and FHSS
E: IR, FHSS, and DSSS

Correct Answers:  B

14. What are two security appliances that can be installed in a network? (Choose two.)

A: ATM
B: IDS
C: IOS
D: IOX
E: IPS
F: SDM
Correct Answers:  B, E

Robin Lee :: Jun.30.2008 :: CCNA Exam Braindumps :: No Comments »